- #1
DivergentSpectrum
- 149
- 15
Im having trouble convincing myself that a charge located anywhere inside a conducting sphere will create an induced charge on the surface of the sphere with an electric field that is completely uniform. This doesn't make much sense to me.
Also same with how the electric field inside solid conductors is zero, but to a lesser degree(i get the idea that the induced charge will cancel out the initial field, but I am still kinda unsatisfied)
Do i just have to deal with it and go on until i get into more advanced stuff, or is there some kinda explanation/proof for it?
Also same with how the electric field inside solid conductors is zero, but to a lesser degree(i get the idea that the induced charge will cancel out the initial field, but I am still kinda unsatisfied)
Do i just have to deal with it and go on until i get into more advanced stuff, or is there some kinda explanation/proof for it?