Cardinalities of Infinite Sets: Proving Bijective Relationship (0,1) and (0,2)

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In summary, the conversation discusses the bijective relationship between sets (0,1) and (0,2) and the use of cardinality in proving this relationship. The conclusion is that, despite (0,1) and (0,2) being infinite sets, they still have the same cardinality.
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knowLittle
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Homework Statement


Explain why ## (0,1 ) ## and ## (0,2)##

I have proved that a function ## f: (0,1 ) -> (0,2) ##defined by f(x) =2x is bijective.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I could state that due to the sets relationship being bijective they have the same cardinality, but this is only true if both sets are finite. Here, (0,1) and (0,2 ) are infinite.

Any help?
 
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  • #2
What is your definition of "having the same cardinality"?
 
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  • #3
Nevermind, you are right. The definition of same cardinality or numerically equivalency doesn't restrict finite from infinite sets.
 
  • #4
knowLittle said:
Nevermind, you are right. The definition of same cardinality or numerically equivalency doesn't restrict finite from infinite sets.

Right! So you solved the problem correctly. Congratz!
 

Related to Cardinalities of Infinite Sets: Proving Bijective Relationship (0,1) and (0,2)

1. What is a bijective relationship?

A bijective relationship is a one-to-one correspondence between two sets, meaning that each element in one set is paired with exactly one element in the other set. This is also known as a "one-to-one and onto" relationship.

2. How can we prove a bijective relationship between sets?

To prove a bijective relationship between sets, we must show that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets. This can be done by showing that for each element in one set, there is a unique corresponding element in the other set, and vice versa.

3. What does it mean for two sets to have the same cardinality?

Two sets have the same cardinality if there is a bijective relationship between them. This means that they have the same number of elements, and each element in one set corresponds to exactly one element in the other set.

4. How do we prove a bijective relationship between sets with infinite cardinalities?

To prove a bijective relationship between sets with infinite cardinalities, we can use the Cantor-Bernstein-Schröder theorem. This theorem states that if there are injections (one-to-one mappings) from one set to another and vice versa, then there is a bijective relationship between the two sets.

5. Can we prove a bijective relationship between the sets (0,1) and (0,2)?

Yes, we can prove a bijective relationship between the sets (0,1) and (0,2). This can be done by showing that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets. For example, we can map the element 0.5 from (0,1) to the element 1 from (0,2), and vice versa. This shows that every element in one set has a unique corresponding element in the other set, thus proving a bijective relationship.

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