Can the operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h] be faced as parity?

In summary, the conversation discusses the evaluation of ##exp(\frac{-i\pi L_x}{h})## in a ket |l,m> and whether it can be treated as a parity operator or if the exponential should be expanded in terms of ##L_+## and ##L_-##. It is proposed that the exponential is equivalent to a rotation operator around the x axis and that the operator can be simplified by expanding it in a Cartesian basis. It is concluded that the final answer can be written in terms of the ##|l,m \rangle## ket alone and is equal to ##(-1)^l |l,-m \rangle##. The conversation also touches on the half-odd integer angular momenta and how a full
  • #1
Icaro Lorran
12
3

Homework Statement


The problem originally asks to evaluate ##exp(\frac{-i\pi L_x}{h})## in a ket |l,m>. So I am wondering if I can treat the operator as a parity operator or if I really have to expand that exponential, maybe in function of ##L_+## and ##L_-##.

2. The attempt at a solution
If ##exp(\frac{-i\pi L_x}{h})## operates in |y,z> it returns |-y,-z>. Then, if it operates in |l,m> it would just change the ket's signal.
 
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  • #2
Well, proving it for general ##l## might be a tedious task. But if you are only interested in the final answer, think of the fact that ##\exp \left( -\frac{i\pi L_x}{\hbar} \right)## is a rotation operator around ##x## axis through an angle of ##\pi## radian. Now ##|l,m \rangle ## is a state which points in the ##z## direction because it is an eigenstate of ##L_z##. Applying ##\exp \left(- \frac{i\pi L_x}{\hbar} \right)## to this state is the same as rotating this state around ##x## axis through an angle of ##\pi## radian.
 
  • #3
By expanding ##\exp \left( - \frac{i \pi L_x}{\hbar}\right) |l,m\rangle## into a Cartesian basis like ##\int \exp \left( - \frac{i \pi L_x}{\hbar}\right)| x,y,x \rangle \langle x,y,z |l,m\rangle \mathrm{dV}## it would be possible to use the operator in the xyz ket so that it could be simplified into this: ##\int | x,y,x \rangle \langle x,-y,-z |l,m\rangle \mathrm{dV}##. With that said, is there a way to write this answer with the ##|l,m \rangle## ket alone?
 
  • #4
If you insist that way, you can start from the fact that ##\langle x,y,z | l,m\rangle = Y_{lm}(\theta,\phi)## with ##Y_{lm}## being spherical harmonics defined as
$$
Y_{lm}(\theta,\phi) = \sqrt{\frac{(l-m)!}{(l+m)!}} P_l^m(\cos \theta) e^{i m\phi}
$$
Now first find out how it will affect ##Y_{lm}(\theta,\phi)## when you make the changes ##y \rightarrow -y## and ##z \rightarrow -z##.
 
  • #5
I'll try that, thank you
 
  • #6
Just to verify the answer, should it be ##(-1)^{(l+m)} |l,m \rangle##?
 
  • #7
Nope, it's not. It seems that to arrive at that equation you changed ##\theta## only, keeping ##\phi## unchanged.
 
  • #8
How about this? If it isn't, I'll need help.

##(-1)^l \frac{(l-m)!}{(l+m)!}|l,-m \rangle##
 
  • #9
Almost there.
So, following the aforementioned changes, you should get (I hope)
$$
\cos \theta \rightarrow -\cos \theta\\
\phi \rightarrow 2\pi -\phi
$$
Applying these changes to the ##Y_{lm}(\theta,\phi)## yields
$$
Y_{lm}(\theta,\phi) = \sqrt{\frac{(l-m)!}{(l+m)!}} P_l^m(\cos \theta) e^{i m\phi} \rightarrow \sqrt{\frac{(l-m)!}{(l+m)!}} P_l^m(-\cos \theta) e^{-i m\phi}
$$
Using the parity property of the associated Legendre polynomial ##P_l^m(-x) = (-1)^{l+m} P_l^m(x)## and ##P_l^{-m}(x) = (-1)^m \frac{(l-m)!}{(l+m)!} P_l^m(x)##, the right hand side of the above arrow sign can be manipulated to give
$$
(-1)^l \frac{(l+m)!}{(l-m)!} \sqrt{\frac{(l-m)!}{(l+m)!}} P_l^{-m}(\cos \theta) e^{-i m\phi}
$$
Now try to manipulate this further such that it becomes proportional to ##Y_{l,-m}(\theta,\phi)##.
 
  • #10
But that is what I did
 
  • #11
No, it's different from yours. Look what happen when you simplify those fractions with factorial signs.
 
Last edited:
  • #12
So just ##(-1)^l |l,-m \rangle ## then
 
  • #13
Yes, it should be that.
 
  • #14
Wow, that was a hell of a evaluation. Thank you for helping me out!
 
  • #15
You can further check if this is true by applying the second ##\exp \left( \frac{i \pi L_x}{\hbar} \right)## to the last result. You should easily see that it will end up with ##(-1)^{2l} |l,m \rangle##, due to the fact that a double ##\exp \left( \frac{i \pi L_x}{\hbar} \right)##'s is equivalent to a full rotation about x axis. However, for ##l## equal to an half-odd integer, a full rotation results in a negative sign, but this is indeed a characteristic of half-odd integer angular momenta.
 
  • #16
Got it
 

Related to Can the operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h] be faced as parity?

1. What is the operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h]?

The operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h] is also known as the parity operator, and it is used in quantum mechanics to represent the concept of parity symmetry. It is a mathematical operation that flips the sign of the spatial coordinates in a system.

2. How is the operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h] related to parity symmetry?

The operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h] is the mathematical representation of parity symmetry. It is used to describe systems where the laws of physics are not affected by a change in the sign of the spatial coordinates.

3. Can the operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h] be used to determine the parity of a quantum state?

Yes, the operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h] can be used to determine the parity of a quantum state. When applied to a quantum state, it will either produce the same state (even parity) or the negative of the state (odd parity).

4. What are the properties of the operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h]?

The operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h] is Hermitian, meaning that its eigenvalues are real and its eigenvectors are orthogonal. It also has the property of being unitary, which means that its inverse is equal to its conjugate transpose.

5. How is the operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h] applied in quantum mechanics?

The operator Exp[-I*Pi*L_x/h] is used in quantum mechanics to study the symmetry of physical systems. It is applied to quantum states and operators to determine the parity of a system and understand its properties under a change in spatial coordinates.

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