- #1
Spinnor
Gold Member
- 2,225
- 431
I think I have read that massless fermionic states can be used (as a basis?) to build up massive fermionic states. Is that true? If so, could you please give me a very short outline of how this is done, or maybe better, a mathematical statement that "says" the same thing?
Thanks for any help!
Thanks for any help!