- #1
McLaren Rulez
- 292
- 3
Hi,
In Griffiths' Introduction to Quantum Mechanics, he proves an important result in the first chapter: If we normalize a wavefunction at t=0, it stays normalized at all later times. To do this, he considers the relation [tex]\frac{d}{dt}\int|\psi(x,t)|^{2}dx= \frac{i\hbar}{2m}[\psi^{*}\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial x} -\frac{\partial\psi^{*}}{\partial x}\psi][/tex]
Now the right hand side needs to be shown to be zero but this is only true if we make the assumption that [itex]\psi[/itex] is normalizable at all t. Griffiths says in a footnote that mathematically speaking, this is not necessary i.e. we can find functions which change from normalizable to non normalizable and still satisfy the Schrodinger Equation.
So my question is whether this sort of wavefunction has any physical meaning? Perhaps something like a particle disappearing over time?
Thank you.
In Griffiths' Introduction to Quantum Mechanics, he proves an important result in the first chapter: If we normalize a wavefunction at t=0, it stays normalized at all later times. To do this, he considers the relation [tex]\frac{d}{dt}\int|\psi(x,t)|^{2}dx= \frac{i\hbar}{2m}[\psi^{*}\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial x} -\frac{\partial\psi^{*}}{\partial x}\psi][/tex]
Now the right hand side needs to be shown to be zero but this is only true if we make the assumption that [itex]\psi[/itex] is normalizable at all t. Griffiths says in a footnote that mathematically speaking, this is not necessary i.e. we can find functions which change from normalizable to non normalizable and still satisfy the Schrodinger Equation.
So my question is whether this sort of wavefunction has any physical meaning? Perhaps something like a particle disappearing over time?
Thank you.