Can a Specific Width Parameter Ensure a Bound State in a 1D Quantum System?

In summary, the one-dimensional quantum system described by the given potential has a bound state with negative energy represented by the wave function ψ−(x), which is a Gaussian function with a specific value of x_o that satisfies the eigenvalue problem. The bracketed part of the TISE must be independent of x, leading to the equation x_o^4 = (ℏ^2)/(m^2w^2), and the wave function can be used to calculate the probabilities of finding the particle inside or outside the well.
  • #1
CAF123
Gold Member
2,948
88

Homework Statement


Consider a one-dimensional quantum system described by the potential: $$V(x) = -V_o + \frac{1}{2}mw^2x^2\,\,,V_o > 0\,\,\text{for}\,\, |x| < b\,\,\text{and}\,\,0\,\,\text{otherwise}$$
Show that the state described by: $$\psi_{-}(x) = R_{-} \exp\left[-\frac{x^2}{2x_o^2}\right]\,\,\,\text{for}\,\,|x| < b$$
can be an eigenstate of the Hamiltonian describing a bound state (i.e. a state with
negative energy) only for a specific value of ##x_o##.

Homework Equations


##\hat{H}\psi_{-}(x) = E\psi_{-}(x)## if ##\psi_{-}## is an eigenstate of the Hamiltonian.

The Attempt at a Solution


I have sketched the potential and it looks parabolic in the region ##x \in (-b,b)## A bound state is a state of neg energy => E < 0 and so the path of some incoming particle intersects the potential plot in two places. For ##x \in (-b,b)## it makes sense that the wave function is a decaying exponential. Because ##V_o## is fixed, it also makes sense that the decaying exp is not proportional to m or w, since I think this means there is only one parabola that satisfies the boundary conditions. If ##\psi_{-}## is to be an eigenstate, it must satisfy the eigenvalue problem ##\hat{H}\psi_{-} = E \psi_{-}##. I tried subbing ##\psi_{-}## in, and this gave me an expression for E in terms of x. I am not really sure what else to try, any hints would be great.
Many thanks.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
??
CAF123 said:
I have sketched the potential and it looks parabolic in the region ##x \in (-b,b)##
Then you should try other values of x_0, too.

A bound state is a state of neg energy => E < 0
Okay
and so the path of some incoming particle intersects the potential plot in two places.
Which path, which incoming particle?

For ##x \in (-b,b)## it makes sense that the wave function is a decaying exponential.
Why?
(it does not, and the wave function is not a decaying exponential)

Because ##V_o## is fixed, it also makes sense that the decaying exp is not proportional to m or w, since I think this means there is only one parabola that satisfies the boundary conditions.
Where is the relation between the statements here?

If ##\psi_{-}## is to be an eigenstate, it must satisfy the eigenvalue problem ##\hat{H}\psi_{-} = E \psi_{-}##.
Good.
I tried subbing ##\psi_{-}## in, and this gave me an expression for E in terms of x.
How does this expression look like?
How does it have to look like for an eigenstate?
 
  • #3
mfb said:
??
Then you should try other values of x_0, too.
I am not sure what you mean - if x is not in (-b,b) then V is zero. If x is in (-b,b) then the potential is parabolic with a minimum value Vo

Which path, which incoming particle?
For the purposes of the question, the particle has -Vo< E < 0. ##\psi_{-}## must be associated to a quantum particle which has negative energy. I am only trying to get an idea of what is going on, I don't know if it helps me solve the question or not.
Why?
(it does not, and the wave function is not a decaying exponential)
For the particle to be in (-b,b) the particle must have penetrated one side of the potential barrier. Is ##\psi_{-}## not a decaying exponential?

How does this expression look like?
How does it have to look like for an eigenstate?
Is this the right approach? Subbing in ##\psi_{-}##into the TISE: ##-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_{-} + V(x)\psi_{-} = E\psi_{-}## gives the following; $$\psi_{-} \left[\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{1}{x_o^2} - \frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{x^2}{x_o^6} + \frac{1}{2}mw^2x^2 - V_0\right] = E\psi_{-}. $$ For ##\psi_{-}## to be an eigenstate, the bracketed part must equal E. But why does this only give one ##x_o##?

Thanks for reply.
 
Last edited:
  • #4
CAF123 said:
I am not sure what you mean - if x is not in (-b,b) then V is zero. If x is in (-b,b) then the potential is parabolic with a minimum value Vo
x_0 means x0, that is not x.
Did you plot the function for different values of x0? Try ##x_0=\frac{b}{5}##, for example. Do you see a deviation from a parabola?

For the purposes of the question, the particle has -Vo< E < 0. ##\psi_{-}## must be associated to a quantum particle which has negative energy.
The energy scale is arbitrary, there is no special meaning of "negative energy" - apart from the fact that this is the energy range where you are supposed to look for solutions.

For the particle to be in (-b,b) the particle must have penetrated one side of the potential barrier. Is ##\psi_{-}## not a decaying exponential?
It is not. It would be a decaying exponential outside of (-b,b) if (!) the potential there would be constant - it is not.

Is this the right approach?
It is.

For ##\psi_{-}## to be an eigenstate, the bracketed part must equal E.
The important point here: it must be E independent of x. How can the bracket be independent of x?
 
  • #5
mfb said:
x_0 means x0, that is not x.
Did you plot the function for different values of x0? Try ##x_0=\frac{b}{5}##, for example. Do you see a deviation from a parabola?
I think I see your point - at x =-b,b, you could have a spike. However, a parabolic form is still okay I think.

It is not. It would be a decaying exponential outside of (-b,b) if (!) the potential there would be constant - it is not.
Okay I see now that it is obviously not a decaying exponential, a Gaussian rather. Outside the region [-b,b], the potential is a constant (=0), so should I not expect a decaying solution? When I solve the Schrodinger eqn this is what I get?

The important point here: it must be E independent of x. How can the bracket be independent of x?
So that means the coefficient of ##x^2## in the bracketed part must be zero. I.e $$\frac{1}{2} mw^2 - \frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{1}{x_0^4}= 0 \Rightarrow x_0^4 = \frac{\hbar^2}{m^2 w^2}$$ and so ##x_o = \pm \frac{\hbar^{1/2}}{w^{1/2}m^{1/2}}##.

The next part of the question is about finding the wave function for all x and the probabilities of finding the particle in or outside the well. I think it makes more sense to consider the particle already inside the well - I think if you consider instead an incoming particle then in this set up, it would have negative kinetic energy which is not physical. For x < -b and x > b, the Schrodinger eqn is $$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_{-} = E \psi_{-}\Rightarrow \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_{-} = -\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}\psi_{-}$$For a bound state, E < 0 and so ##-2mE/\hbar^2## will be positive. Hence ##\psi_{-} = A\exp(\sqrt{2mE}/\hbar x)## for x < -b and ##\psi_{-} = D\exp(-\sqrt{2mE}/\hbar x)## for x > b. (Reject the diverging exp terms) By the continuity of the wave function I can determine A and D in terms of ##R_{-}##. Does this seem ok?
 
Last edited:
  • #6
CAF123 said:
I think I see your point - at x =-b,b, you could have a spike. However, a parabolic form is still okay I think.
I would not call this a spike, but it can be discontinuous. And I misinterpreted your potential, see below:

Okay I see now that it is obviously not a decaying exponential, a Gaussian rather.
Inside, okay.
Outside the region [-b,b], the potential is a constant (=0), so should I not expect a decaying solution? When I solve the Schrodinger eqn this is what I get?
Oh sorry, I misread the potential. Okay, outside you get a decaying exponential, I agree.

So that means the coefficient of ##x^2## in the bracketed part must be zero. I.e $$\frac{1}{2} mw^2 - \frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{1}{x_0^4}= 0 \Rightarrow x_0^4 = \frac{\hbar^2}{m^2 w^2}$$ and so ##x_o = \pm \frac{\hbar^{1/2}}{w^{1/2}m^{1/2}}##.
Good. Both x0 give the same wave function.

The next part of the question is about finding the wave function for all x and the probabilities of finding the particle in or outside the well. I think it makes more sense to consider the particle already inside the well - I think if you consider instead an incoming particle then in this set up, it would have negative kinetic energy which is not physical.
There is no incoming particle.

For x < -b and x > b, the Schrodinger eqn is $$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_{-} = E \psi_{-}\Rightarrow \frac{d^2}{dx^2} \psi_{-} = -\frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}\psi_{-}$$For a bound state, E < 0 and so ##-2mE/\hbar^2## will be positive. Hence ##\psi_{-} = A\exp(\sqrt{2mE}/\hbar x)## for x < -b and ##\psi_{-} = D\exp(-\sqrt{2mE}/\hbar x)## for x > b. (Reject the diverging exp terms) By the continuity of the wave function I can determine A and D in terms of ##R_{-}##. Does this seem ok?
The way you use the signs looks wrong. If E<0, your square root is imaginary, and you don't get a decay.
 
  • #7
mfb said:
The way you use the signs looks wrong. If E<0, your square root is imaginary, and you don't get a decay.
I am not really sure how I would correct this. The negative that appears there in the first place (in the h/2m term) is already there in the Schrodinger eqn. So I will definitely have a negative on the RHS. Then I said that since E is negative in our case, then this makes the RHS positive. So when I find the roots of the characteristic polynomial I have real solutions.
 
Last edited:
  • #8
The minus sign should stay in the square root, as (-2mE) is positive and will give real roots, while (2mE) is/does not. Just check the individual steps, it has to be there.
 

Related to Can a Specific Width Parameter Ensure a Bound State in a 1D Quantum System?

1. What is the 1D Potential Step QM Problem?

The 1D Potential Step QM Problem is a theoretical problem in quantum mechanics that involves a one-dimensional potential energy barrier. It is used to study the behavior of particles that encounter an abrupt change in potential energy in a one-dimensional system.

2. How is the 1D Potential Step QM Problem solved?

The 1D Potential Step QM Problem is typically solved using the Schrödinger equation, which describes the quantum state of a particle in terms of its position and time. By solving this equation, the probability of the particle passing through the potential barrier can be determined.

3. What are the key assumptions of the 1D Potential Step QM Problem?

The key assumptions of the 1D Potential Step QM Problem include a one-dimensional system, a constant potential energy within the barrier, and a particle with a known energy approaching the potential barrier. Additionally, the problem assumes that the particle is not affected by external forces or interactions.

4. What are the implications of the 1D Potential Step QM Problem?

The 1D Potential Step QM Problem has implications for understanding the behavior of particles in quantum systems, such as in the study of quantum tunneling. It also has applications in various fields, including nanotechnology and solid-state physics.

5. How does the 1D Potential Step QM Problem relate to real-world phenomena?

The 1D Potential Step QM Problem can be applied to real-world phenomena, such as the behavior of electrons in a semiconductor device or the transmission of particles through a thin film. It also has implications for understanding the principles of quantum computing and quantum information processing.

Similar threads

  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
14
Views
1K
Replies
2
Views
279
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
2
Views
861
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
8
Views
6K
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
14
Views
1K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • Advanced Physics Homework Help
Replies
1
Views
2K
Back
Top