- Thread starter
- #1

- Jan 29, 2012

- 661

Here is a link to the question:Prove:

for each i = 1, 2, ... n

than L1(vi) = L2(vi)

only if L1 = L2

I can this of the concept in my head and I think I understand it but I am having trouble actually putting the proof on paper. Any help is appreciated.

Thanks

{v1, v2, ... , vn} is a basis for V. L1 and L2 are two linear transformations mapping V into a vectorspace W.? - Yahoo! Answers

I have posted a link there to this topic so the OP can find my response.