Beads on a thread - What stops the acceleration?

In summary, the problem involves an infinitely long thread with small beads that can move without friction. The beads have a constant mass and are lined up with a constant distance between them. When a constant force is applied to the first bead, it will eventually reach a final, constant velocity. The collisions between the beads are completely inelastic. The solution involves finding the final velocity, which is found to be (F*d/m)^(1/2). However, there is a question about why the velocity becomes constant and whether there is an outer force that counteracts the pushing force. Additionally, there is a question about the energy aspect and why the solution does not match the kinetic energy formula. Another question is raised about whether the assumption of asymptotic velocity
  • #36
haruspex said:
That's the right step. Can you see how to rewrite that as mN= sum of a series? You can easily sum that series and find the exact algebraic form of vN.

Should it be rewritten: ## m_N = m_1 + m_2 + m_3 ## ?
No, that can't be right, can it? I am sorry, I can't see which sum ## m_N ## equlas.
Should I go back to some of the "basic" equations and use v instead of w to find a sum?
 
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  • #37
Alettix said:
Should it be rewritten: ## m_N = m_1 + m_2 + m_3 ## ?
No, that can't be right, can it? I am sorry, I can't see which sum ## m_N ## equlas.
Should I go back to some of the "basic" equations and use v instead of w to find a sum?
No, persevere with ##m_{N+1}=m_N+2kN##.
This tells you what to add to go from mN to mN+1. So what do you need to add to go from m1 to mN? If it's still not clear, find m2 in terms of m1, then m3, etc.
 
  • #38
##m_N = m_1 + (N-1)N *k ##
is what I find, is that right?
Now, I tried finding the difference between ##m_{N+1}## and ##m_N##
--> ##m_{N+1} - m_N = (N+1)N - (N-1)N = 2kN ##
Now, using ## m_N = w_N * N^2 ## , we can obtain:
##w_{N+1} = \frac{2kN + w_N * N^2}{(N+1)^2} ##
if now N → ∞ , we can apporoximate: ##w_{N+1} → \frac{2kN+w_N * N^2}{N^2} = 2k/N + w_N → 0 + w_N = w_N ##
because ## w_N = v_N^2 ##, this proves that ## v_{N+1} → v_N ## when N → ∞. Or am I wrong?
 
  • #39
Alettix said:
##m_N = m_1 + (N-1)N *k ##
is what I find, is that right?
Good, but the next step is to clean up that m1. The whole system starts from rest, so m1=0.
mN=N(N-1)k.
Use that to find vN2 as a function of N and k.
 
  • #40
Well in that case, I get:
## v_N = (k - k/N)^{1/2} ##
If then N → ∞ ## v_N = k^{1/2} = (\frac{Fd}{m})^{1/2} ## which is the correct answer.

Thank you very much for your kind help and patience Sir!
 
  • #41
Alettix said:
Well in that case, I get:
## v_N = (k - k/N)^{1/2} ##
If then N → ∞ ## v_N = k^{1/2} = (\frac{Fd}{m})^{1/2} ## which is the correct answer.

Thank you very much for your kind help and patience Sir!
You got it.
 

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