- #1
PiepsNYC
- 3
- 0
Hi there,
I've been trying to understand the theory to descibe the delta(1232) resonance but I'm stuck... hope you guys could help me. After reading several papers, the following questions arose:
1. How do I get (mathematically) the spinor respresentation (1/2,0)+(1,1/2)+(0,1/2)+(1/2,1)
from the product of a vector and a spin-1/2 spinor?
Why don't we use the (3/2, 0)-representation (I think this was alreay asked)?
2. Problem with the lower spin components (s-1), (s-2), etc. corresponding to the (1/2,0)+(0,1/2) in the upper representation:
How do I "see" them in the RS-Lagrangian?
Is this problem exisiting in a Spin-1-theory: do Spin-0 d.o.f.s arise there?
3. We remove the Spin 1/2 contributions by the constrain: γμψμ=0, where γ are the gamma matrices and ψ is the RS-field. What does this mean?
4. Why the consistent(physical) vertex has to satisfy pμ[itex]\Gamma[/itex][itex]\mu[/itex]=0, with pμ being the 4-momentum?
These questions remain unanswered to me.
Thanks for reply!
I've been trying to understand the theory to descibe the delta(1232) resonance but I'm stuck... hope you guys could help me. After reading several papers, the following questions arose:
1. How do I get (mathematically) the spinor respresentation (1/2,0)+(1,1/2)+(0,1/2)+(1/2,1)
from the product of a vector and a spin-1/2 spinor?
Why don't we use the (3/2, 0)-representation (I think this was alreay asked)?
2. Problem with the lower spin components (s-1), (s-2), etc. corresponding to the (1/2,0)+(0,1/2) in the upper representation:
How do I "see" them in the RS-Lagrangian?
Is this problem exisiting in a Spin-1-theory: do Spin-0 d.o.f.s arise there?
3. We remove the Spin 1/2 contributions by the constrain: γμψμ=0, where γ are the gamma matrices and ψ is the RS-field. What does this mean?
4. Why the consistent(physical) vertex has to satisfy pμ[itex]\Gamma[/itex][itex]\mu[/itex]=0, with pμ being the 4-momentum?
These questions remain unanswered to me.
Thanks for reply!
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