- #1
AJS2011
- 11
- 0
Hey,
In doing calculations on superconductors, I often hear that people say "averaging over the random potential of impurities make the theory translationally invariant both in time and space".
I do not exactly understand it? Could you please explain it through a simple example or by citing a readable reference?
Thanks a lot!
In doing calculations on superconductors, I often hear that people say "averaging over the random potential of impurities make the theory translationally invariant both in time and space".
I do not exactly understand it? Could you please explain it through a simple example or by citing a readable reference?
Thanks a lot!
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