- Thread starter
- #1
- Mar 10, 2012
- 834
Hello MHB.
There's a number theory problem I was solving and I can solve it if the following is true:
Let $p, q$ be distinct odd primes. Let $pk=q-1$ for some integer $k$. Then $p^k \not\equiv 1 \,(\mbox{mod } q)$.
I considered many such primes to find a counter example but failed. Can anyone see how to prove or disprove this?
There's a number theory problem I was solving and I can solve it if the following is true:
Let $p, q$ be distinct odd primes. Let $pk=q-1$ for some integer $k$. Then $p^k \not\equiv 1 \,(\mbox{mod } q)$.
I considered many such primes to find a counter example but failed. Can anyone see how to prove or disprove this?