- Thread starter
- #1

- Mar 10, 2012

- 835

There's a number theory problem I was solving and I can solve it if the following is true:

Let $p, q$ be distinct odd primes. Let $pk=q-1$ for some integer $k$. Then $p^k \not\equiv 1 \,(\mbox{mod } q)$.

I considered many such primes to find a counter example but failed. Can anyone see how to prove or disprove this?