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Buzz Bloom
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I looked at the other threads that have discussed retrocausality, but a scan of the article
seems to take a new approach.
The paper also gives two references.
The following paragraph is a quote from the article that seems to explain the meaning of the authors' idea.
I have two questions about this idea.
1. Can any of the forums participants think of a way that this idea can be experimentally tested?
2. What does anyone guess about the chances that this idea will at some future time become mainstream?
seems to take a new approach.
The paper also gives two references.
Proceedings of The Royal Society A. DOI: 10.1098/rspa.2016.0607 .
Also at arXiv:1607.07871 [quant-ph].
Also at arXiv:1607.07871 [quant-ph].
The following paragraph is a quote from the article that seems to explain the meaning of the authors' idea.
First, to clarify what retrocausality is and isn't: It does not mean that signals can be communicated from the future to the past—such signaling would be forbidden even in a retrocausal theory due to thermodynamic reasons. Instead, retrocausality means that, when an experimenter chooses the measurement setting with which to measure a particle, that decision can influence the properties of that particle (or another particle) in the past, even before the experimenter made their choice. In other words, a decision made in the present can influence something in the past.
The following is another quote which seems to be the theoretical basis for the idea.
Can't have both time symmetry and no-retrocausality
I have two questions about this idea.
1. Can any of the forums participants think of a way that this idea can be experimentally tested?
2. What does anyone guess about the chances that this idea will at some future time become mainstream?