- Thread starter
- #1
- Jan 17, 2013
- 1,667
Prove the following
\(\displaystyle \int^1_0 \log(\sin(\pi x)) \, dx = - \log(2)\)
where \(\displaystyle \log\) represents the natural logarithm
\(\displaystyle \int^1_0 \log(\sin(\pi x)) \, dx = - \log(2)\)
where \(\displaystyle \log\) represents the natural logarithm
