- #1
jezse
- 5
- 0
I know I have to prove this using induction, but am having some problems.
show n! > n^2 for all n >= 4
what I have so far
1) n=4; 4^2=16 < 4! = 4*3*2*1=24; 16 < 24
2) show (n+1)! > (n+1)^2
something a long the lines of..
(n+1)! = (n+1)*n!
> (n+1)*n^2
.. then what, can I just say (n+1)n^2 > (n+1)^2? or am I missing a step or 2..
thanks
show n! > n^2 for all n >= 4
what I have so far
1) n=4; 4^2=16 < 4! = 4*3*2*1=24; 16 < 24
2) show (n+1)! > (n+1)^2
something a long the lines of..
(n+1)! = (n+1)*n!
> (n+1)*n^2
.. then what, can I just say (n+1)n^2 > (n+1)^2? or am I missing a step or 2..
thanks
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