In the question they solve for (Wet) Volume
My original question in the topic was if instead they were asking for the (Dry) volume, what would be the difference?
Going by your answers, it seems when you calc'ed the dry volume, difference is that you don't subtract the pressure due to water...
My attempt to try and convert book equation to FE manual equation in 3rd pic
Fx = QpV1 + P1A1 - QpV2Cosa - P2A2Cosa
Fx = P1A1 - P2A2Cosa+ Qp(V2Cosa +V1)
P1A1 - P2A2Cos(a) - Fx = -Qp(V2Cosa +V1)
Summary:: Why are you multiplying by 1000NM/kJ within square root?
Practice problem for FE
[Thread moved from the technical forums so no Homework Template is shown]
120. Is that what they were asking for? Is frictional force not what I calculated above?
EDIT: 120 is the answer but I thought that would've been the applied force and not the Frictional force.
Or is the frictional force just equal to whatever the applied perpendicular force is until max...
My question was does ##{a}_\text{Bx*}=0## only because the diagram confines it to vertical motion or does the angular velocity of the rod equal angular velocity of B with respect to A and we could use the following below to explain why ##{a}_\text{Bx}=0## has no x component as well...
So just to clarify, the acceleration we solved for ##\vec{a}_A = -r\omega^2## or in the diagram below ##e_r## is always perpendicular to the motion of the object and for our case that is why A would be accelerating in what we designated as the x plane?
##\vec{a}_B## is equal to zero only...
Coming back to this, I'm actually incredibly confused now and am wondering If my answer was just a coincidence. I've been getting mixed up with remembering my drawing and the original one from problem. How would taking x component help here as in diagram both a and b are moving vertically?