Thanks !
I was using the integral definition of the observation value of momentum, the two exponents with the time dependence cancel out, but I don't see why the remaining integral is zero. I was hoping there was a general way of showing it without using a specific example for the potential.
two questions:
1. besides using Ehrenfests theorem, is there another way of showing that the expectation value of momentum is zero in a stationary state ? (I don't see it when simply applying the definition on the stationary solution)
2. If we have a state that is a superposition of...