Thank you for your answer! I understand that. Is it possibile to get the same result showing that the term ∂(Fαβ (*F)αβ)/∂∂μAν in the equations of motion Is zero? Because I understand why your way Is correct but I do not understand why mine Is not
Hello everybody! I know in classical field theory adding in the Lagrangian density a term of the form Fαβ (*F)αβ (where by * we denote the dual of the field strength tensor) does not change the EOM, since this corresponds to adding a total derivative term to the action. However when computing...