Sorry I didn't know that such a wavefunction is pathological. As I said I'm just beginner and I didn't know that this function doesn't make physical sense. Later in Griffiths there is an example with complex potential and there the overall probability is decreasing over time. I was just curious...
Thank you for your answer. Up to now where I am Griffiths haven't mentioned that. I understand that wavefunction must vanish at infinity as otherwise we couldn't get probability equal to 1. However why there is also condition of vanishing derivative? At a first glance I don't see any reason why...
I've started reading Introduction to Quantum Mechanics by Griffiths and I encountered this proof that once normalized the solution of Schrodinger equation will always be normalized in future:
And I am not 100% convinced to this proof. In 1.26 he states that ##\Psi^{*} \frac{\partial...