Recent content by cyborg6060

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    EMF/Eddy Currents Induced in a Hollow Cylindrical Conductor

    I'm attempting to figure out the total current induced in a hollow metal tube as a result of the EMF due to a constantly varying magnetic flux through its cross-section. Faraday's law of induction states that for an infinitely thin loop of wire in such varying magnetic flux has induced EMF...
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    Escaping a Black Hole's Event Horizon

    My issue is that I don't see what prevents a spaceship throwing off fuel at a constant rate A kg/s, so that: \frac{dp}{dt} = \frac{GMm}{r^2} A v = \frac{GM(m - At)}{r^2}. What prevents this system (classically, so long as v is not too large) from escaping the event horizon? My...
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    Escaping a Black Hole's Event Horizon

    When classically deriving the Schwarzschild radius of a black hole, the kinetic energy of an outgoing particle (moving at the impossible-to-achieve maximum of the speed of light) is equated with the gravitational potential of the black hole at that point. \frac{1}{2}mc^2 = \frac{GMm}{r}...
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    Exploring the Qualitative Reason Behind VDW's \rho^2 Dependence

    In van der Waals' equation for real gases, the adaptation to account for intermolecular attractions in real gas is a\frac{n^2}{V^2}. This implies that the pressure due to the VDW forces on the container is proportional to the square of the density, \rho^2 = \frac{n^2}{V^2}. When I do...
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    Where does other energy go when matter and antimatter annihilate?

    So what would happen to other energies, such as kinetic energy? Let's say two antiparticles collide with certain velocities, v; where would their KE manifest itself after annihilation?
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    Where does other energy go when matter and antimatter annihilate?

    If a particle has a certain potential energy then collides with its antiparticle, releasing energy according to E=2mc^2, what happens to the PE of the two particles? Let's say that a particle has a gravitational potential energy of X, wouldn't the antiparticle need to have a GPE of -X in...
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    Can a solid sphere only be considered a point for inverse-square forces?

    You raise a very good point. The dipole-dipole force falls off as \frac{1}{r^3} only along the plane equidistant between the two poles. Doh. As far as the LDF intermolecular forces go, the attraction is entirely independent of direction and therefore spherically symmetrical.
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    Can a solid sphere only be considered a point for inverse-square forces?

    To my knowledge there existed a fair amount of forces that are not inverse-square in nature. When electric dipoles are involved, for instance, the decay becomes one of \frac{1}{r^3}. Also, the macroscopic functions for intermolecular forces such as those due to dipole-dipole and Van der Waals...
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    Can a solid sphere only be considered a point for inverse-square forces?

    I am curious as to whether the force of solid sphere can be considered to be originating entirely at its center when the force is not of \frac{1}{r^2} nature. It is said that the field inside a uniform spherical shell is zero for any \frac{1}{r^2} type force and not for any others. It would...
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    Pressure on a Sphere due to an Interior Force

    Consider a sphere of mass M and radius R. The interior of the sphere is a uniformly distributed mass M. The surface shell of the sphere has a certain mass dm. What is the pressure on the surface of the sphere due to gravitational forces?
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