I don't think he will die anytime soon. He seems to be paranoid enough, that he'll kill off anyone he suspects of treason. If he were assassinated by foreign powers, he would be replaced with someone just like him. Just like he did. In other words, business as usual, as Greg pointed out.
Incompleteness has everything to do with axioms. Axioms do not prove themselves. Axioms are things that are assumed to be true. Axioms are just propositions. In order to be complete, we must prove these axioms.
True, you do have to be a little more rigorous. By incomplete I mean you cannot prove all the axioms to the point where nothing is left assumed or unproven. Of course Presburger Arithmetic is complete in the sense that you can deduce each proposition from the axioms. However, incomplete in that...
Borg, thanks for the info. Russ, the article says they were his accomplices.
From the same article: "Internal FBI memos show agents were aware that Mohamud was "manipulable." Sounds like the FBI did the persuasion necessary.
Ok, but isn't it kinda shady that are law enforcement agents (the people who are supposed to protect us) are being accomplices to the guy who wants to kill us all? You do know that we have bad cops out there. Thoughtcrime had nothing to do with my argument, by the way. And I will admit, that my...
Well, has he committed a crime? If I point a fake gun at you, and I pull the trigger should I go to jail for attempted murder? Or are you saying it somehow matters that I know the gun is fake? Even though there could never be a murder in the first place because the gun is fake.
Unless of...
So? There were no explosives. Right? No harm, no foul. And he could serve life? He clearly did not attempt to use any weapons of mass destruction, because there was none!
Is any collection of axioms incomplete? This seems to be intuitively true.
Relating to Godel's Incompleteness theorem, Godel proved any consistent set of axioms based on the theory of natural numbers cannot be proved themselves, without leaving any assumptions.
So what I am wondering is...
In addition, be careful about the first statement that you made.
-xn≠(-x)n does not hold for all n and x that you are used to using.
This statement is FALSE for all odd n. There is also some x for which this is false.
This is the real argument here. As economicsnerd pointed out, for a family of statements f(n), where n varies over a nonempty collection of the positive integers, if one of these statements is false, then there is a first false statement. Why is this the case? This follows from the fact that a...