Yes, it does describe inertia(resistance of a physical object to a change in its state of motion or rest), but my reasoning is that Newton's first law says that force<=>acceleration. Is it not the case?
How so? The book I'm using and all the professors I've consulted say that Newton's 2nd...
Is Newton's first law the definition of force in Newtonian mechanics?
If not: 1) What is the definition of force in Newtonian mechanics?
2) What is the purpose of Newton's first law?