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  1. MHB Apprentice

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    #1
    I haven't thought too much about this, but it seems to me that the intermediate value theorem would transfer. Am I incorrect?
    Last edited by conscipost; September 15th, 2013 at 15:24.

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    #2
    Quote Originally Posted by conscipost View Post
    I haven't thought too much about this, but it seems to me that the intermediate value theorem would transfer. Am I incorrect?
    In Elementary Caculus: An Infinitesimal Approach by Jerome Keisler in chapter 3, there is good proof of this.
    The chapters and whole book is a free down-load .

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    Quote Originally Posted by Plato View Post
    In Elementary Caculus: An Infinitesimal Approach by Jerome Keisler in chapter 3, there is good proof of this.
    The chapters and whole book is a free down-load .
    This was not quite what I was thinking about. But I think it helps clarify the question I had. I have not thought much about the topology of the hyperreals but what I'm asking is:

    Say I have a continuous function defined on the hyperreals and I take a "closed" interval [a,b], that is the set of all hyperreals between a and b, where a and b may very well be unlimited, does it follow that for any c: f(a)<c<f(b) there exists an x so that f(x)=c.

    The star transform of [a,b] wouldn't give unlimited elements as far I'm looking into it, so I'm afraid this would have to be proven using something other than Los's theorem.

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