
#1
September 15th, 2013,
15:11
I haven't thought too much about this, but it seems to me that the intermediate value theorem would transfer. Am I incorrect?
Last edited by conscipost; September 15th, 2013 at 15:24.

September 15th, 2013 15:11
# ADS
Circuit advertisement

#2
September 15th, 2013,
18:46
Originally Posted by
conscipost
I haven't thought too much about this, but it seems to me that the intermediate value theorem would transfer. Am I incorrect?
In Elementary Caculus: An Infinitesimal Approach by Jerome Keisler in chapter 3, there is good proof of this.
The chapters and whole book is a free download .

#3
September 15th, 2013,
21:00
Thread Author
Originally Posted by
Plato
In Elementary Caculus: An Infinitesimal Approach by Jerome Keisler in chapter 3, there is good proof of this.
The chapters and whole book is a free download
.
This was not quite what I was thinking about. But I think it helps clarify the question I had. I have not thought much about the topology of the hyperreals but what I'm asking is:
Say I have a continuous function defined on the hyperreals and I take a "closed" interval [a,b], that is the set of all hyperreals between a and b, where a and b may very well be unlimited, does it follow that for any c: f(a)<c<f(b) there exists an x so that f(x)=c.
The star transform of [a,b] wouldn't give unlimited elements as far I'm looking into it, so I'm afraid this would have to be proven using something other than Los's theorem.