Why is the professor's method for solving the integral more efficient?

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In summary, The conversation is about calculating an integral on the volume enclosed by z>=0 and the sphere. The person is asking how to get the expression from cartesian to polar and how to get the 2 cos teta on the interval. Another person asks about the angles and length of a triangle formed by a point on the sphere, the origin, and the center. They also discuss using the law of cosines to find the lengths. They then discuss variable change and the jacobian for an integral. Eventually, they realize that the professor did not make a mistake and that they should use the professor's method.
  • #1
nhrock3
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why does the prof wrote a mistake there and wrote 2cos theta in there
??

(i didnt typed the question correctly,the original is
i need to calculate the integral on the volume enclosed by z>=0 and the sphere which is written in the photo.)
24oq2ww.jpg

how mathematicky can i get this transition

how to get this expression
from cartesian to polar and get the 2 cos teta on the interval

[TEX]\rho\le 2\cos \phi[/TEX]

??
 
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  • #2
hi nhrock3! :smile:

if the origin is O, and if the centre of the sphere is C, and if P is a point on the sphere,

what are the angles of triangle OCP, and what is the length of OP ? :wink:
 
  • #3
tiny-tim said:
hi nhrock3! :smile:

if the origin is O, and if the centre of the sphere is C, and if P is a point on the sphere,

what are the angles of triangle OCP, and what is the length of OP ? :wink:

OP^2=0C^+PC^2
how it changes the intervals?
 
  • #4
nhrock3 said:
OP^2=0C^+PC^2

no, it's not a right-angle
 
  • #5
What are the lengths of OP & PC ?

Isn't φ the angle from the z axis to OP ?

Use the law of cosines to answer tiny-tim's question.
 
  • #6
SammyS said:
What are the lengths of OP & PC ?

Isn't φ the angle from the z axis to OP ?

Use the law of cosines to answer tiny-tim's question.


i can't imagine the angle


Isn't φ the angle from the z axis to OP ?


could you draw it please
 
  • #7
C is the centre, so CO = CP = r = 1.

Angle COP = φ.

So how long is OP?​
 
  • #8
Or just use that [itex]x^2+y^2+z^2=\rho^2[/itex] and [itex]z=\rho \cos\phi[/itex] to transform

[tex]x^2+y^2+z^2=2z[/tex]

into an equation that uses only rho and phi.
 
  • #9
tiny-tim said:
C is the centre, so CO = CP = r = 1.

Angle COP = φ.

So how long is OP?​

OP^2=CO^2+CP^2-2OC*PCcos(180-2φ)

what to do now?
 
  • #10
nhrock3 said:
OP^2=CO^2+CP^2-2OC*PCcos(180-2φ)

what to do now?

well, now put the numbers in :confused:
 
  • #11
ok i got it
if we try and solve it in a different way.
but if we do variable change
x=u y=v z-1=w
then the jacobian is 1
and the integral is a ball of radius from 0 to 1

unlike here where our radius is from 0 to 2cos

why??
 
  • #12
Placing the origin at the center of the sphere naturally makes the limits of integration simple for a sphere. I hope you changed the integrand accordingly.
z → w+1
 
  • #13
nhrock3 said:
ok i got it
if we try and solve it in a different way.

no, nhrock3, you haven't got it …

you still haven't a clue why your prof did that …
nhrock3 said:
why does the prof wrote a mistake there and wrote 2cos theta in there

your prof is a clever guy who knows how best to teach this subject (and who knows what's coming up in the exams :rolleyes:)

it is not clever for you to give up on his method and to "try and solve it in a different way" :redface:

(and presumably you still think your prof wrote a mistake?)

start again …​
nhrock3 said:
OP^2=CO^2+CP^2-2OC*PCcos(180-2φ)

what to do now?
tiny-tim said:
well, now put the numbers in :confused:

in other words, put CO = CP= PC = 1 …

what do you get?
 

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