- #1
Wiemster
- 72
- 0
The cauchy Riemann relations can be written:
[tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial \bar{z}}=0[/tex]
Is there an 'easy to see reason' why a function should not depend on the independent variable [itex]\bar{z}[/tex] to be differentiable?
[tex]\frac{\partial f}{\partial \bar{z}}=0[/tex]
Is there an 'easy to see reason' why a function should not depend on the independent variable [itex]\bar{z}[/tex] to be differentiable?