- #1
tnutty
- 326
- 1
I know that :
kinetic energy of something = P^2 / 2m , or momentum squared over 2m
why so?
I see that taking the integral of mv dv = kenitic.
can you prove this to
kinetic energy of something = P^2 / 2m , or momentum squared over 2m
why so?
I see that taking the integral of mv dv = kenitic.
can you prove this to