- #1
imranq
- 57
- 1
So we were going over geometric series in my calc class (basic, I know), however I was intrigued by one point that the prof. made during lecture
[tex] \frac{\pi^2}{6} = \sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\frac{1}{n^2} = \zeta (2)[/tex]
That's amazing (at least to me). Looking for the explanation for this, I found a bunch of stuff relating to Fourier analysis which was - unfortunately - written in vague terms. Would someone explain this proof that is accessible to a Calc II student? Thanks
[tex] \frac{\pi^2}{6} = \sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\frac{1}{n^2} = \zeta (2)[/tex]
That's amazing (at least to me). Looking for the explanation for this, I found a bunch of stuff relating to Fourier analysis which was - unfortunately - written in vague terms. Would someone explain this proof that is accessible to a Calc II student? Thanks