- #1
Karnage1993
- 133
- 1
I'm working on a problem that wants me to show that $$Cov(X,Y) = 0$$ and I am up to the point where I simplified it down to $$Cov(X,Y) = E(XY)$$. In other words, $$E(X)E(Y) = 0$$ to make the above true. My question is, what can we conclude if we have that the covariance of two random variables (not independent) is equal to the expectation of the product of those two random variables?