- #1
Manilzin
- 16
- 0
Consider this quote from Mandl and Shaw, p. 237
...this interaction coulpes the field [tex]W_{\alpha}(x)[/tex] to the leptonic vector current. Hence it must be a vector field, and the W particles are vector bosons with spin 1.
Could someone explain this for me? I do not understand the "hence", because I do not know what a vector current means. Also, why does a vector field imply bosons with spin 1?
...this interaction coulpes the field [tex]W_{\alpha}(x)[/tex] to the leptonic vector current. Hence it must be a vector field, and the W particles are vector bosons with spin 1.
Could someone explain this for me? I do not understand the "hence", because I do not know what a vector current means. Also, why does a vector field imply bosons with spin 1?