- #1
jackferry
- 15
- 0
Hello, I am learning about smooth analytic functions and smooth nonanalytic functions, and I am wondering the following:
Is there a theorem that states that for any real analytic functions f and g and a point a, that if at a f=g and all of their derivatives are equal, that then f=g?
Is there a theorem that states that for any real analytic functions f and g and a point a, that if at a f=g and all of their derivatives are equal, that then f=g?