- #1
Epsilon36819
- 32
- 0
Hi everyone. I was going through a proof of Wald's equation, where it was claimed that if {S_n} is a sequence defined as S_n = \sum_1^{n} Y_i where the Y_i are iid with finite mean \mu, then Z_n = S_n - n \mu is a martingale.
But I don't see why... at all!
Help!
But I don't see why... at all!
Help!