- #1
Kiyal
- 15
- 0
Even though a type 1 diabetic can have insulin resistance - a Type 1 cannot have the disease of Type 2 at the exact same time.
I would agree that a type 1 can have insulin resistance to synthetic insulin that they inject, though that isn't the same as the definition of the disease Type 2, in which a their pancreas can still produce some insulin but they are resistant to their own insulin, due to fat lipid cells or some other unknown issue.
It's true that a Type 1 can share a characteristics of Type 2 diabetes, in the form of insulin resistance, but I would not say that a Type 1 can have Type 2 diabetes - both are totally different conditions, even if they do share some characteristics.
If a Type 1 diabetic is resistant to synthetic insulin, then by its very nature how would that translate into the condition of Type 2, in which a person still produces X mount of THEIR OWN insulin though is resistant to it, as their cells fail to respond to the production properly. Obviously in a Type 1 the insulin producing beta cells have been destroyed, insulin resistance from then on, should be considered just that, insulin resistance - not the disease of Type 2 Diabetes, which I see many people falsely claiming to be the case.
The notion of of 'Double Diabetes' isn't that the Type 1 holds both diseases, it's that they share a characteristic that is common of type 2.
I would agree that a type 1 can have insulin resistance to synthetic insulin that they inject, though that isn't the same as the definition of the disease Type 2, in which a their pancreas can still produce some insulin but they are resistant to their own insulin, due to fat lipid cells or some other unknown issue.
It's true that a Type 1 can share a characteristics of Type 2 diabetes, in the form of insulin resistance, but I would not say that a Type 1 can have Type 2 diabetes - both are totally different conditions, even if they do share some characteristics.
If a Type 1 diabetic is resistant to synthetic insulin, then by its very nature how would that translate into the condition of Type 2, in which a person still produces X mount of THEIR OWN insulin though is resistant to it, as their cells fail to respond to the production properly. Obviously in a Type 1 the insulin producing beta cells have been destroyed, insulin resistance from then on, should be considered just that, insulin resistance - not the disease of Type 2 Diabetes, which I see many people falsely claiming to be the case.
The notion of of 'Double Diabetes' isn't that the Type 1 holds both diseases, it's that they share a characteristic that is common of type 2.