- #1
Whenry
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Hello all,
I understand that the taylor expansion for a multidimensional function can be written as
[itex]f(\overline{X}[/itex] + [itex]\overline{P}[/itex]) = [itex]f(\overline{X}) + \nabla f(\overline{X}+t\overline{P})(\overline{P})[/itex]
where t is on (0,1).
Although I haven't seen that form before, it makes sense.
But I don't understand the integral in the following the Taylor expansion,
[itex]\nabla f(\overline{X}[/itex] + [itex]\overline{P}[/itex]) = [itex]\nabla f(\overline{X}) + \int^{1}_{0} \nabla^{2} f(\overline{X}+t\overline{P})(\overline{P})dt[/itex]
Could someone help me understand the derivation?
Thank you,
Will
I understand that the taylor expansion for a multidimensional function can be written as
[itex]f(\overline{X}[/itex] + [itex]\overline{P}[/itex]) = [itex]f(\overline{X}) + \nabla f(\overline{X}+t\overline{P})(\overline{P})[/itex]
where t is on (0,1).
Although I haven't seen that form before, it makes sense.
But I don't understand the integral in the following the Taylor expansion,
[itex]\nabla f(\overline{X}[/itex] + [itex]\overline{P}[/itex]) = [itex]\nabla f(\overline{X}) + \int^{1}_{0} \nabla^{2} f(\overline{X}+t\overline{P})(\overline{P})dt[/itex]
Could someone help me understand the derivation?
Thank you,
Will
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