Show that the primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n +1 are infinite

In summary, the conversation discusses how to show that the number of primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n+1 are infinite. The method used for 4n-1 involves using Euclid's proof, while the method for 4n+1 involves using quadratic reciprocity. However, the speaker is not familiar with quadratic reciprocity and wishes to approach the problem without using modular arithmetic, as it has not yet been covered in their class. They are currently using a book that focuses on the theory of divisibility and the study of prime numbers without using modular arithmetic.
  • #1
teddyayalew
36
0

Homework Statement


Show that the number of primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n +1 are infinite


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I am able to show this for 4n -1 but I am having trouble doing it for primes of the other form. ( I am hoping to do it without using modular arithmetic)

For primes of the form 4n-1 I used the same argument that was used in Euclid proof by showing that I can always generate a new prime of that form :

Let 4a-1, 4b-1, 4c-1,...,4k-1 be all the primes of the above form
let x = 4[(4a-1)(4b-1)(4c-1)...(4k-1)] -1
1. x has a prime divisor that is not part of the above list because if it was it would have to divide 1 which would make it not prime
2. the prime divisor is odd so it is of the form 4y+1 or 4y-1
3. because (4y+1)(4z+1) = 16yz + 4z + 4y + 1 = 4(4yz+y+z) +1 , not all the prime divisors can be of the form 4y+1, one must be of the form 4y-1 so there is a prime divisor that can always be generated in this manner therefore there are an infinite number of primes of the form 4n-1.


When i try to prove there are an infinite number of primes of the form 4n+1 and I get to the part ( 3. from previous proof)
I get (4y-1)(4z-1)= 16yz -4y -4z +1 =4(yz -y -z) +1 which doesn't tell me that all the factors are not of the form 4y-1 so i can't make the conclusion that one must be of the form 4y +1. What other way should I approach this.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
You probably don't want to avoid modular arithmetic, it is harder than the other case. Think about (2*p1*p2*...*pk)^2+1, where p1, p2..., pk are your finite set of primes of the form 4n+1. If it's divisible by a prime p, then (2*p1*p2*...*pk)^2=(-1) mod p. Using quadratic reciprocity, what sort of prime must p be?
 
  • #3
I am not familiar with quadratic reciprocity. ( I believe my class will cover that topic soon) The reason I wanted to do it without modular arithmetic is because I am currently taking an intro number theory class and the book went into modular mathematics and and the study of primes without really discussing the theory of divisibility and other elementary concepts I found helpful in other NT books. so I got a another book to study with that does not introduce modular arithmetic before going over the theory of divisibility and a study of prime number( to the extent it can be studied without mod). So the book that I am currently studying with doesn't expect I know any mod arithmetic when asking this question because the topic hasn't been covered yet.
 

Related to Show that the primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n +1 are infinite

What is the significance of primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n+1?

Primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n+1 are important in number theory as they are closely related to the famous Fermat's theorem on the sum of two squares. They also have implications in cryptography and the Riemann hypothesis.

What is the statement "the primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n+1 are infinite" based on?

This statement is based on the Euclid's proof of the infinitude of primes, which can be generalized to show that the primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n+1 are also infinite. This means that there are infinitely many primes of the form 4n-1 and infinitely many primes of the form 4n+1.

Can you provide a simple explanation of the proof for this statement?

The proof involves assuming that there are only finitely many primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n+1, and then constructing a new number that cannot be divided by any of these primes. This new number is then shown to be either of the form 4n-1 or 4n+1, which contradicts our assumption. Therefore, there must be infinitely many primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n+1.

Are there any limitations to this statement?

While the statement is true, it does not provide any information about the distribution of primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n+1. In fact, the distribution of these primes is still an open problem in number theory.

Can this statement be extended to other forms of primes?

Yes, the proof for the infinitude of primes of the form 4n-1 and 4n+1 can be extended to other forms of primes, such as 6n+1 and 8n+1. However, each form of primes may require a different proof and cannot always be generalized together.

Similar threads

  • Precalculus Mathematics Homework Help
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • Precalculus Mathematics Homework Help
Replies
12
Views
1K
  • Precalculus Mathematics Homework Help
Replies
9
Views
1K
  • Precalculus Mathematics Homework Help
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • Precalculus Mathematics Homework Help
Replies
1
Views
810
  • Precalculus Mathematics Homework Help
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Replies
3
Views
779
Back
Top