Proof involving numerical equivalence of sets

In summary, to prove that A and B are numerically equivalent, we can define a function h(n) = f(g(n-1)), where g is a bijection from A to A and f is a bijection from A to N. By composing these two bijections, we can show that A and B have the same cardinality, and therefore A is numerically equivalent to B.
  • #1
eclayj
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Homework Statement



Show that for a set A[itex]\subset[/itex]N, which is numerically equivalent to N=Z+, and the set B = A [itex]\cup[/itex]{0}, it holds that A and B are numerically equivalent, i.e., that A [itex]\approx[/itex]B

Hint: Recall the definition of A≈B and use the fact that A is numerically equivalent to N. Note that 0 [itex]\notin[/itex] N.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I really have little clue of how to complete this proof, this is sort of a wild guess, any help appreciated:

It is given that A≈N. This means [itex]\exists[/itex]f:A→N such that f is a bijection. Therefore, f:A→N such that Im[f] = N and [itex]\forall[/itex]x1, x2[itex]\in[/itex]A, x1[itex]\neq[/itex]x2→f(x1)[itex]\neq[/itex]f(x2). Because A [itex]\subset[/itex]N, and A≈A by definition, then there is a function g:A→A such that g is a bijection. This describes the function g(n) = n for [itex]\forall[/itex]n[itex]\in[/itex]A. Then we can define a function h(n) = g(n-1). Because B = A[itex]\cup[/itex]{0}, g:A→B is a bijective function. This is true b/c Im[g] = B and f(x1) [itex]\neq[/itex]f(x2)→g(x1-1)[itex]\neq[/itex]g(x2-1). Thus, we have found a bijection g:A→B, and therefore A[itex]\approx[/itex]B. This concludes the proof.
 
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  • #2
What are the domain and range of h? For a given n in the domain of h, how do you know n-1 is in the domain of g?
Thinking in terms of the function f was a good start, but I don't see where you made use of it. Try combining f with the n-1 idea.
 
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Related to Proof involving numerical equivalence of sets

1. How do you prove that two sets are numerically equivalent?

To prove that two sets are numerically equivalent, you need to show that there exists a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets. This means that every element in one set has a unique corresponding element in the other set, and vice versa. You can do this by creating a function that maps the elements from one set to the other and vice versa.

2. What is the significance of numerical equivalence in set theory?

Numerical equivalence is important in set theory because it allows us to compare the size or cardinality of different sets. It also helps us to understand the relationships between different sets and how they can be combined or manipulated.

3. Can two sets be numerically equivalent if they have different elements?

Yes, two sets can be numerically equivalent even if they have different elements. This is because numerical equivalence is based on the number of elements in a set, not the specific elements themselves. As long as there is a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets, they are considered numerically equivalent.

4. How do you prove that two sets are not numerically equivalent?

To prove that two sets are not numerically equivalent, you need to show that there is no possible one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets. This can be done by showing that one set has more or fewer elements than the other, or by showing that there are elements in one set that do not have a corresponding element in the other set.

5. Can a set be numerically equivalent to itself?

Yes, a set can be numerically equivalent to itself. This is because the definition of numerical equivalence requires a one-to-one correspondence between elements of two sets, and a set always has a one-to-one correspondence with itself. In other words, the number of elements in a set is always equal to the number of elements in itself, making it numerically equivalent.

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