- #1
l'Hôpital
- 258
- 0
Context:
[itex]T : X \rightarrow X[/itex] is a measure preserving ergodic transformation of a probability measure space [itex]X[/itex]. Let [itex]V_n = \{ g | g \circ T^n = g \} [/itex] and [itex]E = span [ \{g | g \circ T = \lambda g, [/itex] for some [itex]\lambda \} ][/itex] be the span of the eigenfunctions of the induced operator [itex]T : L^2 \rightarrow L^2[/itex], [itex]Tf = f \circ T[/itex].
Problem:
I was reading this paper by Fursternberg and Weiss where they implicitly claim if [itex]f \perp E[/itex] then [itex] f \perp V_n[/itex]. However, I don't see how this isso.
Some help would be greatly appreciated. : )
[itex]T : X \rightarrow X[/itex] is a measure preserving ergodic transformation of a probability measure space [itex]X[/itex]. Let [itex]V_n = \{ g | g \circ T^n = g \} [/itex] and [itex]E = span [ \{g | g \circ T = \lambda g, [/itex] for some [itex]\lambda \} ][/itex] be the span of the eigenfunctions of the induced operator [itex]T : L^2 \rightarrow L^2[/itex], [itex]Tf = f \circ T[/itex].
Problem:
I was reading this paper by Fursternberg and Weiss where they implicitly claim if [itex]f \perp E[/itex] then [itex] f \perp V_n[/itex]. However, I don't see how this isso.
Some help would be greatly appreciated. : )