- #1
M-Speezy
- 15
- 0
When normalizing a Wavefunction for a particle on a ring why is the normalization only done as dPhi? It's a particle on a ring, so shouldn't it be r*dPhi? This is my thinking, but I do not find other solutions doing this, just ignoring the r part. I understand that for a ring it's just a constant but it still seems important.