Normalizing Free Particle Homework: \psi(x,t)

In summary, we are given the initial wave function \psi(x,0)=Ae^{-ax^2} and are asked to find the normalized wave function \psi(x,t). Using the equation \int_{-\infty}^\infty\psi^*\psi dx=1, we can find the value of A to be (\frac{2a}{\pi})^{1/4}. Substituting this value for A into the equation, we get the normalized wave function \psi(x,t)=(\frac{2a}{\pi})^{1/4}e^{-2ax^2-i\frac{\hbar k}{2m}t}. However, it is important to note that this may not be
  • #1
E92M3
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0

Homework Statement


[tex]\psi(x,0)=Ae^{-ax^2}[/tex]
Normalize and find:
[tex]\psi(x,t)[/tex]

Homework Equations


[tex]1=\int_{-\infty}^\infty\psi^*\psi dx[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


[tex]1=A^2\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-2ax^2} dx[/tex]
let:
[tex]u=x\sqrt{2a}[/tex]

[tex]1=A^2\frac{1}{\sqrt{2a}}\int_{-\infty}^\inftye^{-u^2} du=A^2\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2a}}[/tex]
Therefore:
[tex] A=(\frac{2a}{\pi})^{1/4}[/tex]

[tex]\psi(x,t)=(\frac{2a}{\pi})^{1/4}e^{-2ax^2-i\frac{\hbar k}{2m}t}[/tex]
This is too simple to be the right answer. I think I'm missing the point of the question. Please point me to the right direction.
 
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  • #2
E92M3 said:
[tex] A=(\frac{2a}{\pi})^{1/4}[/tex]

[tex]\psi(x,t)=(\frac{2a}{\pi})^{1/4}e^{-2ax^2-i\frac{\hbar k}{2m}t}[/tex]
This is too simple to be the right answer. I think I'm missing the point of the question. Please point me to the right direction.

Your value of [itex]A[/itex] is correct; which leaves you with

[tex]\psi(x,0)=\left(\frac{2a}{\pi}\right)^{1/4}e^{-ax^2}[/tex]

How did you go from that, to your equation for [itex]\psi(x,t)[/itex]?
 

Related to Normalizing Free Particle Homework: \psi(x,t)

1. What is the concept of normalizing a free particle wave function?

Normalizing a free particle wave function means adjusting the amplitude of the wave function to ensure that the total probability of finding the particle within a given space is equal to 1. This is necessary because the amplitude of a wave function is arbitrary, and normalizing it allows us to interpret it as a probability density function.

2. How do I normalize a free particle wave function?

To normalize a free particle wave function, you need to integrate the absolute square of the wave function over all space (from -∞ to +∞). Then, you divide the wave function by the square root of the result of the integration. This will give you a normalized wave function with a total probability of 1.

3. Why is normalizing a free particle wave function important?

Normalizing a free particle wave function is important because it allows us to interpret the wave function as a probability density function. This means that the square of the wave function gives us the probability of finding the particle in a specific location. Without normalizing, the wave function would not have a clear physical interpretation.

4. Can I normalize a free particle wave function with any initial conditions?

Yes, you can normalize a free particle wave function with any initial conditions. The normalization process only depends on the shape of the wave function, not on the specific values of the wave function at a given point in time. So, as long as the wave function is square-integrable, it can be normalized.

5. How does normalizing a free particle wave function affect the time evolution of the wave function?

Normalizing a free particle wave function does not affect the time evolution of the wave function. The normalization process only adjusts the amplitude of the wave function, but the shape and behavior of the wave function remain the same. The time evolution of the wave function is determined by the Schrödinger equation, which is not affected by the normalization process.

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