- #1
davidge
- 554
- 21
Given any finite set of natural numbers, it seems evident that the odd numbers form a subset of the natural numbers. But what happens "at infinity"? I mean, if we account for all infinitely many natural numbers, there would be also infinitely many odd numbers. In such case, is it still true that the odd ones form a subset of the natural ones?
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<Title edited along with this note about the title. fresh_42>
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