Is the law of sines ever incorrect?

In summary, during a conversation about the law of sines, a mathematics grad student claimed to have proven it to be wrong multiple times. The speaker disagrees, stating that in their years of studying engineering, they have never encountered a false answer from the law of sines. The possibility of non-Euclidean geometry is mentioned as a potential explanation for the grad student's claims. The speaker suggests asking the grad student about it again and seeking advice from others in the field. It is noted that the law of sines is only true in Euclidean geometry, and if the grad student thought they had proven it false in this realm, they are a fool. If they meant non-Euclidean geometry but did not specify, they are a wise
  • #1
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I got into an argument with a mathematics grad student about the law of sines. He said that he has proven it to be wrong several times. I don't see how this is possible, given that the angles are opposing the sides, it doesn't seem possible for it to be EVER incorrect.

I asked him to prove it for me but he said he didn't have time.

Does anyone know about this being invalid?

In my years of studying engineering, I have NEVER found the law of sines to give me a false answer.
 
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  • #2
If it was wrong, why would it be in all the books? Maybe he means sperical geometry, or something else.
 
  • #3
as robert said, the grad student may have been talking about some non-Eulidean geometry.

If we take away one of Euclid's axioms, we make all new geometries and some of our inferences such as the law of sines may disappear.

Anyway, ask him about it again and put it on the forum.
 
  • #4
Some grad students are fools, some are just wise-acres.

Many like to put undergraduates on.

Yes, in non-Euclidean geometry, the "sin law" is not true. If you look at your textbooks, you will see that they never claimed it to be true except in Euclidean geometry.

If your grad student actually thought he had proven the "sin law" to be false in Euclidean geometry, he is a fool. If he meant "in non-Euclidean" geometry, but did not specify that, he is a wise-acre. I don't recommend hanging around with either sort.
 

Related to Is the law of sines ever incorrect?

What is the Law of Sines?

The Law of Sines is a mathematical rule that relates the sides and angles of a triangle. It states that the ratio of the length of a side of a triangle to the sine of the opposite angle is constant for all sides and angles of the triangle.

How do you use the Law of Sines?

To use the Law of Sines, you need to know at least three of the following: the length of one side and the measure of two angles, or the length of two sides and the measure of one angle. Then, you can use the formula sin(A)/a = sin(B)/b = sin(C)/c to solve for the missing values.

When should the Law of Sines be used?

The Law of Sines is typically used when dealing with non-right triangles, meaning triangles that do not have a 90-degree angle. It is especially useful when you know the measures of some angles and sides, but not all of them.

What are the limitations of the Law of Sines?

The Law of Sines can only be used for non-right triangles. Additionally, it can only be used to find missing values if you know at least three of the values (lengths or angles) in the triangle. If you only know two values, you will not be able to use the Law of Sines to find the missing value.

How does the Law of Sines relate to the Law of Cosines?

The Law of Sines and the Law of Cosines are both rules that relate the sides and angles of a triangle. However, the Law of Sines is typically used when dealing with non-right triangles, while the Law of Cosines is used for right triangles. The two laws can also be used together to solve for missing values in a triangle with a mix of right and non-right angles.

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