- #1
nicnicman
- 136
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Hello all, while practicing set theory, I cam across this problem:
If A and B are sets, prove that A x (B-C) = (AxB) - (BxC).
This looks suspiciously like the distributive property but it's not. Is this simply a typo? Shouldn't the problem look like this:
A x (B-C) = (AxB) - (AxC)
Thanks for any suggestions.
If A and B are sets, prove that A x (B-C) = (AxB) - (BxC).
This looks suspiciously like the distributive property but it's not. Is this simply a typo? Shouldn't the problem look like this:
A x (B-C) = (AxB) - (AxC)
Thanks for any suggestions.