- #1
atqamar
- 55
- 0
If an odd function has an infinite discontinuity in its domain, can it be integrated (such that a convergent finite emerges) with that domain included?
For example: [tex]\int_{-1}^2 \frac{1}{x^{-3}} dx[/tex]. Intuitively, it can be simplified to [tex]\int_1^2 \frac{1}{x^{-3}} dx[/tex] and thus the infinite discontinuity at 0 is removed.
If that is not doable, can an integral converge if the end points of the domain are infinite discontinuities?
For example: Does [tex]\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} tan(x) dx = 0[/tex]?
If these kinds of functions are split in two, and limits to [tex]\infty[/tex] are taken, then algebraic manipulation of infinities are required.
Any insight would be appreciated.
For example: [tex]\int_{-1}^2 \frac{1}{x^{-3}} dx[/tex]. Intuitively, it can be simplified to [tex]\int_1^2 \frac{1}{x^{-3}} dx[/tex] and thus the infinite discontinuity at 0 is removed.
If that is not doable, can an integral converge if the end points of the domain are infinite discontinuities?
For example: Does [tex]\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} tan(x) dx = 0[/tex]?
If these kinds of functions are split in two, and limits to [tex]\infty[/tex] are taken, then algebraic manipulation of infinities are required.
Any insight would be appreciated.