- #1
dpa
- 147
- 0
Hi all,
Q. A function takes (x,y) and gives (y,x). Is this function injective?
For any function to be injective, f(x,y)=f(x',y')=>(x,y)=(x',y').
But here, I get,
(y,x)=(y',x')
How can I show the function is injective? It appears to be one.
Thank You.
Q. A function takes (x,y) and gives (y,x). Is this function injective?
For any function to be injective, f(x,y)=f(x',y')=>(x,y)=(x',y').
But here, I get,
(y,x)=(y',x')
How can I show the function is injective? It appears to be one.
Thank You.