If A is in B then sup(A) < sup(B)

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In summary, the conversation discusses the proof of the inequality ##\sup X \le \sup Y## for nonempty subsets of real numbers, where ##X \subseteq Y## and ##Y## is bounded above. It is proven in two cases, and the reasoning behind the use of ##y^*## is questioned. It is suggested that the proof can be simplified by working directly with ##\sup Y## as the upper bound for both sets.
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Mr Davis 97
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Homework Statement


Let ##X## and ##Y## be nonempty subsets of real numbers such that ##X \subseteq Y## and ##Y## is bounded above. Prove that ##\sup X \le \sup Y##

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Case 1: ##X = Y##. Trivially, ##\sup X \le \sup Y##.

Case 2: ##X \subset Y##. Then there exists a ##y^* \in Y## that is an upper bound for ##X##. Since ##\sup X## is the least upper bound, ##\sup X \le y^*##. But ##y^* \le \sup Y## since ##\sup Y## is an upper bound for ##Y##. So ##\sup X \le y^* \le \sup Y##, and so ##\sup X \le \sup Y##
 
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Why should ##y^*## (= any upper bound) be less than ##\operatorname{sup}Y## (= least upper bound)? The contrary seems right, especially since I cannot see any reason why ##y^*\in Y##. However, you don't need ##y^*## at all. Why not work directly with ##\operatorname{sup}Y## as upper bound for both?
 
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Related to If A is in B then sup(A) < sup(B)

1. What does "If A is in B" mean in this statement?

"If A is in B" means that every element in set A is also an element of set B. In other words, A is a subset of B.

2. What is the significance of sup(A) and sup(B) in this statement?

sup(A) and sup(B) refer to the supremum (or least upper bound) of sets A and B, respectively. It is the smallest element that is greater than or equal to all elements in the set.

3. How does the inclusion of A in B relate to their supremums?

If A is a subset of B, then sup(B) is always greater than or equal to sup(A). This is because sup(B) is the smallest element that is greater than or equal to all elements in B, and since A is a subset of B, all elements in A are also in B.

4. Is it possible for sup(A) to be equal to sup(B) in this statement?

Yes, it is possible for sup(A) to be equal to sup(B) if A and B are the same set. In this case, A is a subset of B and B is a subset of A, so their supremums will be equal.

5. Can you provide an example to illustrate this statement?

Sure, let's say A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4}. In this case, A is a subset of B and sup(A) = 3, while sup(B) = 4. This follows the statement "If A is in B, then sup(A) < sup(B)".

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