- #1
bznm
- 184
- 0
I have done a lot of counts but I'm sure that there will be a quicker way.. Can you suggest me?
I have followed the way ##\bar{p}=-i \hbar\int \psi(x)* \cdot \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \psi(x) \ dx##...
Can I follow a quicker way?
We have a particle in 1D that can moves only on ##[0,a]## because of the potential ##V(x)=\begin{cases}0, x\in(0,a)\\ \infty, otherwise\end{cases}##
At t=0, ##\displaystyle\psi(x,0)=\frac{\phi_1(x)+e^{i\gamma}\phi_2(x)}{\sqrt2}##
Find the expected value for ##p##.
I have followed the way ##\bar{p}=-i \hbar\int \psi(x)* \cdot \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \psi(x) \ dx##...
Can I follow a quicker way?