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Austin0
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This is related to another current thread
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=426307"
wherein yuiop presents a very convincing demonstration of non-reciprocal proper time differential between an accelerated system AF and an inertial system IF between two points A and B
In sysnopsis: At point A ,,,, AF and IF are colocated with IF having a relative v =0.9512 c wrt AF and at which point AF initiates a constant proper acceleration of 2c/s2 along the same spatial path traveled by IF
At point B they are again colocated with IF having now a relative velocity of v=-0.9512 wrt the instantaneous velocity of AF.
AT this point it is shown that AF has an elapsed proper time significantly less than that of IF.
Given an assumption of generality and the validity of the clock hypotheses it would seem to mean that there was a real dilation differential as a result of the relative velocities during the period of translation.
Viewed as a series of instantaneous relative velocities and the same spatial distance traveled , how then could there be a cumulative difference in elapsed proper time at recolocation??
One perspective could be that the difference was a result of the gamma3 reduction of coordinate acceleration wrt IF So initially If was rapidly moving away from AF [AF v being negative]. In order to catch up AF would neccessarily have to attain a positive velocity relative to IF
In the course of acheiving this relative v , because of the dropoff factor it would neccessarily have to spend a larger part of the time with a greater relative velocity and an increased gamma factor.
In this view , initially AF's clock would have to have a faster rate than IF's.
Clock AF would then slow down relative to its initial rate until reaching a momentary state of comovement and an equal rate and then slow down relative to clock IF from that point.
Given the final result is there any way to look at it other than an actual difference in clock rates?
ANy other niews appreciated
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=426307"
wherein yuiop presents a very convincing demonstration of non-reciprocal proper time differential between an accelerated system AF and an inertial system IF between two points A and B
In sysnopsis: At point A ,,,, AF and IF are colocated with IF having a relative v =0.9512 c wrt AF and at which point AF initiates a constant proper acceleration of 2c/s2 along the same spatial path traveled by IF
At point B they are again colocated with IF having now a relative velocity of v=-0.9512 wrt the instantaneous velocity of AF.
AT this point it is shown that AF has an elapsed proper time significantly less than that of IF.
Given an assumption of generality and the validity of the clock hypotheses it would seem to mean that there was a real dilation differential as a result of the relative velocities during the period of translation.
Viewed as a series of instantaneous relative velocities and the same spatial distance traveled , how then could there be a cumulative difference in elapsed proper time at recolocation??
One perspective could be that the difference was a result of the gamma3 reduction of coordinate acceleration wrt IF So initially If was rapidly moving away from AF [AF v being negative]. In order to catch up AF would neccessarily have to attain a positive velocity relative to IF
In the course of acheiving this relative v , because of the dropoff factor it would neccessarily have to spend a larger part of the time with a greater relative velocity and an increased gamma factor.
In this view , initially AF's clock would have to have a faster rate than IF's.
Clock AF would then slow down relative to its initial rate until reaching a momentary state of comovement and an equal rate and then slow down relative to clock IF from that point.
Given the final result is there any way to look at it other than an actual difference in clock rates?
ANy other niews appreciated
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