- #1
nickthequick
- 53
- 0
Hi,
If I have a forced wave equation
[tex] u_{tt}-c^2u_{xx}= f(x,t) [/tex]
what is my associated energy law?For instance, in the homogeneous case
[tex]\Box u=0 [/tex]
I know that
[tex] E(t)=\frac{1}{2}\int u_t^2 +c^2|u_x|^2 \ dx [/tex]
which implies that [itex]\frac{d E(t)}{d t}[/itex] is equal to zero. (just use integration by parts)
I'm not sure if I should just conclude that
[tex]\frac{d E}{dt}= \int u_t f(x,t) dx [/tex]
by following the same logic as was used to show that this quantity is zero in the homogeneous case. Or we can more generally see that the forced wave equation has a Lagrangian given by
[tex] L = \frac{1}{2}\iint -u_t^2 +c^2|u_x|^2 - 2u f(x,t) \ dx \ dt[/tex]
which means that the associated Hamiltonian, or energy, would be
[tex] E(t) = \frac{1}{2}\int u_t^2 +c^2|u_x|^2 + 2u f(x,t) \ dx [/tex]
which leads to a different result than what I quoted above.Any help is appreciated!
Thanks,
Nick
If I have a forced wave equation
[tex] u_{tt}-c^2u_{xx}= f(x,t) [/tex]
what is my associated energy law?For instance, in the homogeneous case
[tex]\Box u=0 [/tex]
I know that
[tex] E(t)=\frac{1}{2}\int u_t^2 +c^2|u_x|^2 \ dx [/tex]
which implies that [itex]\frac{d E(t)}{d t}[/itex] is equal to zero. (just use integration by parts)
I'm not sure if I should just conclude that
[tex]\frac{d E}{dt}= \int u_t f(x,t) dx [/tex]
by following the same logic as was used to show that this quantity is zero in the homogeneous case. Or we can more generally see that the forced wave equation has a Lagrangian given by
[tex] L = \frac{1}{2}\iint -u_t^2 +c^2|u_x|^2 - 2u f(x,t) \ dx \ dt[/tex]
which means that the associated Hamiltonian, or energy, would be
[tex] E(t) = \frac{1}{2}\int u_t^2 +c^2|u_x|^2 + 2u f(x,t) \ dx [/tex]
which leads to a different result than what I quoted above.Any help is appreciated!
Thanks,
Nick
Last edited: