Dumb, simple, surprising, cardinality question

  • Thread starter jostpuur
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In summary, there does not exist a set X such that card(X) < card(N) but still n < card(X), for all n in N. This has already been proven. A new question has been raised: is card(union of countably many countable sets) equal to card(R)? The answer is no, as a countable union of countable sets is always countable. However, it is true that card(N^N) = card(R). This implies that card(union of countably many countable sets) is strictly less than card(N^N). Another question is posed: is it possible to have a set with cardinality strictly between that of N and R? The answer is unknown and cannot
  • #1
jostpuur
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How do you prove that there does not exist a set [itex]X[/itex] such that

[tex]
\textrm{card}(X) < \textrm{card}(\mathbb{N})
[/tex]

but still

[tex]
n < \textrm{card}(X),\quad \forall\;n\in\mathbb{N}
[/tex]

-----------------

edit:

I proved this already. No need to answer...

------------------

I came up with a new question! Is this true?

[tex]
\textrm{card}\Big(\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty} \mathbb{N}^n\Big) = \textrm{card}(\mathbb{R})
[/tex]
 
Last edited:
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  • #2
Nope, a countable union of countable sets is always countable.
 
  • #3
I had forgotten that now... Amazing. But this is true?

[tex]
\textrm{card}(\mathbb{N}^{\mathbb{N}}) = \textrm{card}(\mathbb{R})
[/tex]

So all this implies

[tex]
\textrm{card}\Big(\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty}\mathbb{N}^n\Big) < \textrm{card}(\mathbb{N}^{\mathbb{N}})
[/tex]

How unfortunante...
 
  • #4
jostpuur said:
But this is true?

[tex]
\textrm{card}(\mathbb{N}^{\mathbb{N}}) = \textrm{card}(\mathbb{R})
[/tex]

Yes it is! Amazingly enough, we actually have the stronger
[tex]
\textrm{card}(\mathbb{R}^{\mathbb{N}}) = \textrm{card}(\mathbb{R})
[/tex].
It's a very worthwhile exercise to try to prove this. It's not straightforward, so ask back for a hint if you get stuck.

Here's another question: is there a set with cardinality strictly between that of N and R?

Amazingly enough, the actual answer to this question isn't "no", BUT neither is it "yes": it's something altogether more weird and interesting. In fact the question has no answer; under the standard axioms of set theory, it can neither be proved nor disproved! Look up "continuum hypothesis" for more info on this if you're interested. Mathematics is a weird place sometimes...
 
  • #5
Something to get you started on the problem: First prove that [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex] has the same cardinality as the power set of [itex]\mathbb{N}[/itex], denoted [itex]2^\mathbb{N}[/itex]. This is the set of all subsets of [itex]\mathbb{N}[/itex]. Then prove that the laws of indices for ordinary numbers still work here...
 

Related to Dumb, simple, surprising, cardinality question

1. What is a "dumb" question?

A "dumb" question is a question that may seem simple or obvious, but is actually quite thought-provoking and can lead to surprising insights.

2. What is a "simple" question?

A "simple" question is a question that is easy to understand and does not require a lot of background knowledge or complex reasoning to answer.

3. What makes a question "surprising"?

A question is considered "surprising" if the answer is unexpected or counterintuitive, challenging our preconceived notions and leading to new understandings.

4. What is "cardinality" in the context of a question?

In the context of a question, "cardinality" refers to the number of distinct elements or values that can be used to answer the question. It is often used to measure the complexity or diversity of a question.

5. How can asking "dumb, simple, surprising, cardinality" questions benefit scientific research?

Asking "dumb, simple, surprising, cardinality" questions can help scientists think critically and creatively, leading to new insights and discoveries. These types of questions can also challenge existing theories and lead to further research and experimentation.

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