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I am reading "Multidimensional Real Analysis I: Differentiation" by J. J. Duistermaat and J. A. C. Kolk ...
I am focused on Chapter 2: Differentiation ... ...
I need help with an aspect of the proof of Lemma 2.2.7 (Hadamard...) ... ...
Duistermaat and Kolk's Lemma 2.2.7 and its proof read as follows:
In the above proof we read the following:
" ... ... Or, in other words since ##(x - a)^t y = \langle x - a , y \rangle \in \mathbb{R}## for ##y \in \mathbb{R}^n##,##\phi_a(x) y = Df(a)y + \frac{ \langle x - a , y \rangle }{ \| x - a \|^2 } \epsilon_a ( x _ a ) \in \mathbb{R}^p \ \ \ (x \in U \setminus \{ a \} , y \in \mathbb{R}^n )##.
Now indeed we have ##f(x) = f(a) + \phi_a(x ) ( x - a )##. ... ... "
My question is as followsow/why does ##\phi_a(x) y = Df(a)y + \frac{ \langle x - a , y \rangle }{ \| x - a \|^2 } \epsilon_a ( x _ a ) \in \mathbb{R}^p##
... imply that ...
##f(x) = f(a) + \phi_a(x )( x - a )## ... ... ... ?
Help will be much appreciated ...
Peter==========================================================================================
NOTE:
The start of D&K's section on differentiable mappings may help readers of the above post understand the context and notation of the post ... so I am providing the same as follows:
The start of D&K's section on linear mappings may also help readers of the above post understand the context and notation of the post ... so I am providing the same as follows:
I am focused on Chapter 2: Differentiation ... ...
I need help with an aspect of the proof of Lemma 2.2.7 (Hadamard...) ... ...
Duistermaat and Kolk's Lemma 2.2.7 and its proof read as follows:
In the above proof we read the following:
" ... ... Or, in other words since ##(x - a)^t y = \langle x - a , y \rangle \in \mathbb{R}## for ##y \in \mathbb{R}^n##,##\phi_a(x) y = Df(a)y + \frac{ \langle x - a , y \rangle }{ \| x - a \|^2 } \epsilon_a ( x _ a ) \in \mathbb{R}^p \ \ \ (x \in U \setminus \{ a \} , y \in \mathbb{R}^n )##.
Now indeed we have ##f(x) = f(a) + \phi_a(x ) ( x - a )##. ... ... "
My question is as followsow/why does ##\phi_a(x) y = Df(a)y + \frac{ \langle x - a , y \rangle }{ \| x - a \|^2 } \epsilon_a ( x _ a ) \in \mathbb{R}^p##
... imply that ...
##f(x) = f(a) + \phi_a(x )( x - a )## ... ... ... ?
Help will be much appreciated ...
Peter==========================================================================================
NOTE:
The start of D&K's section on differentiable mappings may help readers of the above post understand the context and notation of the post ... so I am providing the same as follows:
The start of D&K's section on linear mappings may also help readers of the above post understand the context and notation of the post ... so I am providing the same as follows:
Attachments
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D&K - 1 - Lemma 2.2.7 ... ... PART 1 ... .png13.5 KB · Views: 495
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D&K - 2 - Lemma 2.2.7 ... ... PART 2 ... .png24 KB · Views: 1,122
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D&K - 1 - Start of Section 2.2 on Differentiable Mappings ... PART 1 ... .png29.9 KB · Views: 541
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D&K - 2 - Start of Section 2.2 on Differentiable Mappings ... PART 2 ... .png26.9 KB · Views: 502
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D&K - 1 - Linear Mappings ... Start of Section - PART 1.png8.6 KB · Views: 460
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D&K - 2 - Linear Mappings ... Start of Section - PART 2 ... ... .png33.7 KB · Views: 452
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D&K - 3 - Linear Mappings ... Start of Section - PART 3 ... ... .png40.3 KB · Views: 498
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