Countability: Subjective or Objective?

In summary: But the concept is the same.In summary, the conversation discusses the concept of cardinality and how it applies to sets with infinite elements. It is mentioned that mapping between sets can determine their cardinality, and the use of symbols such as \leq and \geq is essential in understanding this concept. The conversation also highlights the importance of avoiding using intuition from finite sets when dealing with infinite sets.
  • #1
Swapnil
459
6
"Are there more real numbers between 0 and 1 or between 0 and 2?"

If you ask this question to a present day mathematician, he/she would answer that they have the same amount of numbers. Why? Because for every x in the set of numbers between 0 and 2 (call this set A), there is a corresponding number x/2 in the set of numbers between 0 and 1 (call this set B). Thus both set A and B have the same number of elements.

But this type of reasoning seems very subjective to me. If instead of mapping from x -> x/2, you map from x -> x/3, then you conclude that there are more elements in set B! Furthermore, if you map from x -> x, then you conclude that set A is bigger! Thus, by changing your mapping you can just about say any thing: |A| > |B|, |A| < |B|, or |A| = |B| !

I don't get it. I thought math is suppose to be objective, not subjective?
 
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  • #2
It's absolutely objective. I don't know how your x -> x/3 mapping proves anything, but here's a simple way to deal with equal cardinalities. If you have sets X and Y, and X maps (1-1 and onto) to a subset of Y and Y maps (1-1 and onto) onto a subset of X, then |X| = |Y|.
 
  • #3
Step 1: you use bijections to count cardinality. That is correct.

Step 2: you don't use cardinality to talk about cardinality. That is incorrect.

It isn't maths that is subjective here, but your arbitrary decision to use two different notions of 'size'.
 
  • #4
In particular

Swapnil said:
But this type of reasoning seems very subjective to me. If instead of mapping from x -> x/2, you map from x -> x/3, then you conclude that there are more elements in set B! Furthermore, if you map from x -> x, then you conclude that set A is bigger!
By the very definitions of the ordering, these tell you that [itex]| A | \leq | B |[/itex] and [itex]| A | \geq | B |[/itex] respectively.

It is a mistake to think that they imply |A| < |B| or |A| > |B|.

Your intuition about finite sets has misled you. You should generally avoid using it when dealing with infinite sets. (Ideally, you work with the definitions, and in the process you build up an intuition for infinite sets)
 
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  • #5
So why should I have those [tex]\geq , \leq[/tex] signs as oppose to [tex]<,>[/tex]signs.
 
  • #6
Swapnil said:
So why should I have those [tex]\geq , \leq[/tex] signs as oppose to [tex]<,>[/tex]signs.

Do you know what those mean for cardinalities?
 
  • #7
We don't have to answer that question (well, we already have). Instead you have to answer the question: why do you think you should use >,<?

If X is a proper subset of Y, that does not imply |X|<|Y|. If you think it does then you are using the wrong notion of cardinality. Cardinality is based upon bijections, not containment (though containments do give useful implications about cardinality, just not the one you think). Your intuition is evidently based upon finite sets.
 
  • #8
Swapnil said:
So why should I have those [tex]\geq , \leq[/tex] signs as oppose to [tex]<,>[/tex]signs.
Because that's how those symbols are defined.

The definition of [itex]|A| \leq |B|[/itex] is that there exists an injective map A -> B.

The definition of |A| < |B| further requires that there does not exist a bijection A -> B.

(Note that |A| < |B| is not always the same as [itex]\neg(|B| \leq |A|)[/itex] unless you assume the axiom of choice)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cardinal_number
 
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  • #9
matt grime said:
Cardinality is based upon bijections, not containment (though containments do give useful implications about cardinality, just not the one you think).

I agree, though I must admit I use injections via the Cantor-Bernstein theorem more often than actual bijections.
 

Related to Countability: Subjective or Objective?

1. What is the difference between subjective and objective countability?

Subjective countability refers to the perceived or perceived sense of being able to count or quantify something. It is based on individual perceptions and opinions. Objective countability, on the other hand, is based on measurable and verifiable data and is not influenced by personal opinions or biases.

2. Is countability always a subjective or objective concept?

It can be both. In some cases, countability may be purely objective, such as counting the number of objects in a room. In other cases, it may be a combination of both, such as measuring the level of happiness in a group which involves both objective factors (e.g. income) and subjective factors (e.g. personal satisfaction).

3. How does one determine if something is countable?

To determine if something is countable, one must first define what is being counted and establish a method for counting. If the subject being counted can be clearly defined and a consistent counting method can be applied, then it can be considered countable.

4. Can subjective countability be measured or quantified?

While subjective countability is based on individual perceptions, it can still be measured or quantified through surveys, interviews, or other methods of data collection. However, the results may vary depending on the population being surveyed and the questions asked.

5. How does the concept of countability impact scientific research?

The concept of countability is important in scientific research as it helps to ensure that data is collected and analyzed accurately and objectively. It also allows researchers to make meaningful comparisons and draw conclusions from their findings. Additionally, understanding the subjective and objective aspects of countability can help researchers identify potential biases in their data and methodology.

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