CHSH and the triangle inequality

In summary, the CHSH proof on Wikipedia uses the fact that [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda) and [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda) are non-negative, and the triangle inequality to derive the equation |E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| \leq \int [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda + \int [1 \pm \
  • #1
gespex
56
0
Hello everybody,

I've been trying to understand the CHSH proof as it is listed on Wikipedia:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CHSH_inequality

I got to this without any problem:
[itex]E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime) = \int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda - \int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda[/itex]

However, now it mentions two things to get to the next step:
- The fact that [itex][1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)[/itex] and [itex][1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)[/itex] are non-negative (easy enough to see).
- The triangle inequality "to both sides" (how?)

And the next equation is:
[itex]|E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| \leq \int [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda + \int [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda[/itex]

I don't understand how it gets to this last equation from the one before. Could somebody please explain?Thanks in advance,
Gespex
 
Last edited:
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  • #2
gespex said:
Hello everybody,

I've been trying to understand the CHSH proof as it is listed on Wikipedia:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CHSH_inequality

I got to this without any problem:
[itex]E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime) = \int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda - \int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda[/itex]

However, now it mentions two things to get to the next step:
- The fact that [itex][1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)[/itex] and [itex][1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)[/itex] are non-negative (easy enough to see).
- The triangle inequality "to both sides" (how?)

And the next equation is:
[itex]|E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| \leq \int [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda + \int [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda[/itex]

I don't understand how it gets to this last equation from the one before. Could somebody please explain?


Thanks in advance,
Gespex

So you have:
[itex]E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime) = \int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda - \int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda[/itex]

Taking absolute value of both sides
[itex]|E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| = |\int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda - \int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda|[/itex]

Using [itex]|A \pm B| \le |A| + |B|[/itex]:

[itex]|E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| \le |\int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda| + |\int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda|[/itex]

Then using [itex]| \int f(x) dx | \le \int |f(x)| dx[/itex], (which, if you think of it, is just a variation of the above):

[itex]|E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| \le \int |\underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda) | d\lambda + \int |\underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)|d\lambda[/itex]

And since [itex]|\underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)|=1[/itex], and both [itex]1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda) \ge 0[/itex] and [itex]\rho(\lambda) \ge 0[/itex], we get:

[itex]|E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| \leq \int [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda + \int [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda[/itex]
 
  • #3
Delta Kilo said:
So you have:
[itex]E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime) = \int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda - \int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda[/itex]

Taking absolute value of both sides
[itex]|E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| = |\int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda - \int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda|[/itex]

Using [itex]|A \pm B| \le |A| + |B|[/itex]:

[itex]|E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| \le |\int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda| + |\int \underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda|[/itex]

Then using [itex]| \int f(x) dx | \le \int |f(x)| dx[/itex], (which, if you think of it, is just a variation of the above):

[itex]|E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| \le \int |\underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda) | d\lambda + \int |\underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)[1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)|d\lambda[/itex]

And since [itex]|\underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)|=1[/itex], and both [itex]1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda) \ge 0[/itex] and [itex]\rho(\lambda) \ge 0[/itex], we get:

[itex]|E(a, b) - E(a, b^\prime)| \leq \int [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b^\prime, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda + \int [1 \pm \underline {A}(a^\prime, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)]\rho(\lambda)d\lambda[/itex]

Thanks a lot! The proof's easy enough to follow like that. But this statement seems to me to contradict Wikipedia (though it's probably just my ignorance):
[itex]|\underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)|=1[/itex]

As Wikipedia says "Since the possible values of A and B are −1, 0 and +1". So couldn't it also be that [itex]|\underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)|=0[/itex]?

It also says "where [itex]\underline {A}[/itex] and [itex]\underline {B}[/itex] are the average values of the outcomes", so not just -1, 0 or 1, but any value from -1 to 1, which would mean only that: [itex]0 \le |\underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)|\le 1[/itex]

Or am I missing something here?
 
  • #4
gespex said:
Or am I missing something here?
Oh, I'm sorry, you are right of course, it should have been [itex] |\underline {A}(a, \lambda)\underline {B}(b, \lambda)| \le 1[/itex]. It does not change anything though.
 
  • #5
Delta Kilo said:
It does not change anything though.

Oops, yeah, good point. Thanks!
 

Related to CHSH and the triangle inequality

1. What is CHSH and how does it relate to the triangle inequality?

CHSH stands for Clauser-Horne-Shimony-Holt, and it is a type of Bell's inequality that tests the limitations of local hidden variable theories in explaining the results of quantum mechanical experiments. The triangle inequality states that the sum of any two sides of a triangle is always greater than the third side. CHSH helps to demonstrate that quantum mechanical systems cannot be explained by local hidden variables, and the triangle inequality is a key component in this proof.

2. How is the CHSH inequality used in quantum mechanics?

The CHSH inequality is used in quantum mechanics to test the validity of local hidden variable theories and to demonstrate the non-locality of quantum systems. It is a way to quantify the difference between classical and quantum mechanical systems, and has been used in experiments to confirm the predictions of quantum mechanics.

3. What is the significance of CHSH and the triangle inequality in understanding quantum entanglement?

Quantum entanglement refers to the phenomenon where two or more particles become intrinsically linked, so that the state of one particle affects the state of the other, even when they are separated by large distances. CHSH and the triangle inequality help to demonstrate the non-locality of quantum entanglement, as classical systems would not violate the inequality, but quantum systems do.

4. Can CHSH and the triangle inequality be violated in real-world experiments?

Yes, CHSH and the triangle inequality have been violated in many real-world experiments, providing strong evidence for the non-locality of quantum systems and the limitations of local hidden variable theories. These experiments have been replicated numerous times, and the results have been consistent with the predictions of quantum mechanics.

5. How does the violation of CHSH and the triangle inequality impact our understanding of the fundamental laws of physics?

The violation of CHSH and the triangle inequality challenges our traditional understanding of causality and locality in the laws of physics. It suggests that there are non-local interactions between particles that cannot be explained by classical theories, and highlights the role of quantum mechanics in describing the behavior of the universe at a fundamental level.

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